I have been doing a touch of thinking, for a comment has me. . . slightly disturbed. In the comments on here concerning James the brother of Jesus it was noted that aramaic had no word for cousin, so the idea of calling James Jesus' brother could basically be meant to mean cousin.
I am well aware that there are a lot of Aramaic turns of phrase in Scripture - but are we going to say that the Greek is basically a lousy translation? Is the Greek the equivalent of the NIV? I mean, there are translation issues into Greek - but shouldn't we assume that the Words of Scripture are the actual words of Scripture that mean what they ought to mean?
Now, again, I don't think the comment was "insidious" - but doesn't that approach lead to a shift away from what the Word says and rather on to what we think it ought to say, if only Paul was as good at Greek as I am.